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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

11.06.2025 05:34

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

There's no rule.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

The International Boxing Association said that Khelif and Lin competing in Paris Olympics were disqualified from the tournament for testing positive for XY chromosomes which give an unfair advantage in the women’s division. What do you think?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.